One God Report

In this podcast I focus on a few additional interpretive issues of specific words in John 1:14 that mainstream Christians interpret as evidence that God became man.The verb σκηνόω (dwell, tabernacle) is not used of God elsewhere in the Septuagint, while its New Testament occurrences do not naturally support the idea of God incarnating himself in a human body. The traditional translation "dwelt among us" is possible, but it is not the only way to interpret and translate John 1:14. The Greek preposition ἐν ordinarily means "in," and John's Gospel repeatedly uses “in” to describe relationship rather than spatial proximity. John's own usage of "in us," "in me," and "in you" consistently points toward personal relationship, not spatial proximity. John 1:14 can be understood as the Word dwelt “in us”, describing the human person Jesus, the Word, becoming life giving provision and sustenance for others. Such an interpretation fits naturally within John's broader theology of indwelling as a relationship with the Messiah that brings about life.The evidence from John's Gospel, the Septuagint, and the wider New Testament suggests that "the Word dwelt in us" deserves serious consideration as an alternative to the traditional rendering "the Word dwelt among us."An essential doctrinal teaching, something like the incarnation of God into man, should not hang on the interpretation of a single preposition in one verse. Big doctrinal claims require big, consistent, repeated, clear textual evidence. John simply does not say that God, or one person who is God, became man. Resources:Full Text: https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2026/06/dwelt-in-us-or-dwelt-among-us-john-114.htmlThe Word BECAME Flesh? Why John 1:14 does NOT say "God became man"https://youtu.be/z4HepHkyujkThe Word Became Flesh (Sustenance): A Metaphorical Interpretation of “Flesh”https://youtu.be/A87VcXKCWBM"The Word became flesh and dwelt IN us"? Dialog with Sam Tideman on John 1:14https://youtu.be/P4b9xZ0gX6g#gospelofjohn #biblicalunitarian

Part 2 of an exposition of Psalm 110.Psalm 110shows that the one “at the right hand” of God not only has been given the authority to rule as YHVH’s designated King Messiah, but is also appointed by YHVH as Priest Messiah. The high priest mediates between humans and God. The author of Hebrews emphasizes the mediatorial role of Yeshua the Messiah who as our high priest has gone into the presence of God, being at the righthand of God, as our mediator (Heb. 1:3, 1:13, 8:1, 10:12, 12:2). The author of Hebrews hardly mentions that Jesus is the designated King Messiah, but emphasizes that Jesus is the Priest Messiah who mediates for us in the presence ofGod. Paul agrees. The one mediator between God and man is the man Christ Jesus, not a God or a god-man (1 Tim. 2:4-6). In this way,Jesus is David’s Lord not only because Jesus is David’s king, but also becauseJesus is David’s mediating priest who enables David, eventually, to come beforeGod (cf. John 14:6).Psalm 110:1 (Part 1) https://youtu.be/GLEEV9emNT0

Raised on the 3rd Day, According to theScripturesAnsweringRabbi Tovia Singer, with Troy Salinger TroySalinger explains, using Jewish/Rabbinic principals of interpretation, howJesus and Paul could claim that the Jesus resurrection from the dead on the 3rdday was “according to the scriptures. Previousepisode:AnsweringRabbi Tovia Singer: Jewish Hermeneutics, with Troy Salinger (Audio, firstinstallment)https://youtu.be/wjtC-OMXuUU Fullarticle:AnsweringRabbi Tovia Singer: Jewish Hermeneutics/The Resurrection Of The Messiah On TheThird Dayhttps://letthetruthcomeoutblog.wordpress.com/2025/10/29/answering-rabbi-tovia-singer-jewish-hermeneutics-the-resurrection-of-the-messiah-on-the-third-day/ AnsweringRabbi Singer, and Introduction to a Serieshttps://letthetruthcomeoutblog.wordpress.com/2025/10/20/answering-rabbi-tovia-singer-an-introduction-to-a-series/

In this episode I dialog with Sam Tideman’s “Transfigured” Podcaston John 1:14. Sam reviewed the previous One God Report podcast (#148) called“The Word became Flesh (Sustenance): A Metaphorical Interpretation of"Flesh". In this current podcast I dialog with Sam about two of hismain points:1. Is the “became flesh” language of John 1:14 to be associated with mainstreamChristianity’s “Eucharist”and2. Should or could John 1:14 be understood and translated as“the Word became flesh and dwelt IN us”, that is, not “among us”. Resources:The Word became Flesh(Sustenance): A Metaphorical Interpretation of "Flesh" https://youtu.be/A87VcXKCWBMTransfigured Podcast, "TheWord became flesh" - A eucharistic interpretation of John 1:14 https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=PfQKfthc2wA&t=2847s

Does the Bible Declare that “Jesus a God-Man”?We compare mainstream Christian belief with the biblical declarations and find a big difference.Some Scriptures from this episode:John8:40: “I am a man who told you the truth that I heard from God…” Acts2:22: "Men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a man attestedto you by God with mighty works and wonders and signs that God did through himin your midst, as you yourselves know- Acts17:31: “because He (God) has fixed a day on which he will judge the world inrighteousness by a man whom He has appointed; and of this He has givenassurance to all by raising him from the dead. Romans5:15: "For if many died through the trespass of one man, much more havethe grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christabounded for many." Romans5:19: "For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by oneman's obedience many will be made righteous." 1 Corinthians 15:21: “Forsince death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead also came througha man” 1 Cor.15:21: “For as by a man came death, by a man has come also the resurrection ofthe dead.”1Timothy 2:4-6: God "…desires all men to be saved and to come to aknowledge of the truth. For there is one God, and there is one mediator betweenGod and men, the man Christ Jesus who gave himself"

By comparing Genesis 1:1-18 with John 1:1-18 we can understand that the two chapters are describing different events.There are a few words that are common to both Genesis 1 and John 1, like "in, beginning, light, and darkness", but the words have a different meaning than in Genesis.Many key words which are in Genesis 1:1-5 which are not in John 1:1-5: created, heavens, earth, waters, face of the deep, spirit of God, hovering, evening, morning, day, night, first day Many key words in John 1:1-5 which are not in Genesis 1:1-5: word, with God, he (that one) was in the beginning with God, all (things), through him, life, light of men, overcome/comprehend. Then, in verses 6-18, everything is different.John 1 has a different context, describes different events, than Genesis 1. https://www.youtube.com/@billschlegel1"In the beginning was..." Or, John 1:1 is not about the Genesis Creation. https://youtu.be/b8sKQC63ESYA Non-Genesis Creation Interpretation of John 1:3-4https://youtu.be/N3rcP42KWhc

Does Philippians 2:5-11 describe an eternal pre-incarnate God the Son humbling himself to become man?No.Philippians 2:5-11 is about the decisions, actions and attitude of the man Christ Jesus, and his eventual exaltation by his God.Philippians 2: Did God become Man?https://youtu.be/ntg8KvZ2pSQDeity of Christ Interpretations Dishonor the Man Jesus Christhttps://youtu.be/R2VOKEvGqAwFull text here:https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2020/03/did-god-become-man-philippians-25-11.html

Isaiah 42:8 I am YHVH (Yahweh, Yehovah), that ismy name; my glory (cavod, כָבוֹד) I give to no other,nor my praise to graven images. Deityof Christ theologians claim that since Jesus has (God’s) glory, or was given glory by God, he must be God, because God doesn’t give His glory to anyone else. That claim is a philosophical, rationalistic kind of claim that no one in the Bible makes. It’s kind of an end around claim that runs into dead ends. For instance, if Jesus is God, why did God have to give him glory? Can God lose his glory and than someone else who is God give it back to him. This kind of claim really reveals a certain kind of biblical ignorance, or a willing ignorance. It’s the kind of claim that reveals a desperate search for some evidence to make Christ into God. It’s contrived “evidence”. To understand what Isaiah 42:8 and 48:11 are really saying, all we have to do is look a bit at the context of the statements. There are two parts to that context that shows that deity of Christ claims about these passages completely miss the point. The statement in Isaiah 42:8 “I give my glory to no other” are in the context of Israel’s idolatry.1. God DOES NOT give His glory AS GOD to anyoneelse. Specifically, God does not share His glory with other gods or idols. God will not allow Israel to believe that someone or something else is their god.God warned: “I the LORD your God am a jealous God” (Exo 20:5).2. God DOES give glory to others the nation of Israel, notto show that these others are God, but to show that the God who gives the glory is their God, the only God. Deity of Christ interpreters totally miss the meaning of these passages in the Book of Isaiah.Note to listeners: After I publishing the podcast, I see that the quote, translation and interpretation of Romans 5:2 is not as clear-cut as the translation I quoted (RSV). The Greek is more ambiguous. The Greek does not have the word "sharing". The Greek is more literally "we boast(glory) in(with) hope of the glory of God". Because of the ambiguity, the RSV supplied "sharing". But it should be italicized that "sharing" is not in the text. I see another translation (CJB) supplies "experiencing the glory of God". Most translations, which is probably better, just render "we rejoice in the glory of God".I feel I over-stated the case after seeing that word "sharing" is not in the Greek. I would edit that section, but YouTube won’t allow editing since it apparently has already made the video available in other languages (?). So, I’d just encourage people to think about what Paul meant by writing “we rejoice with hope of the glory of God”.The other famous verse in Romans about us having something to do with God's glory is Rom. 3:23, "we all fall short of the glory of God". This verse suggests some human participation or expectation of believers in/with God's glory. Romans 2:7 says we "seek for glory and honor and immortality". 2 Cor. 4:6 describes the "knowledge of God's glory".Unfortunately, most translations are inconsistent (probably with theological bias) on Psalm 84:11. Instead of translating "the LORD (YHVH) God gives grace and glory", English translations make it "favor and honor". But the second word is the same word cavod כָבוֹד as Isaiah 42:6.Another point I would make about “giving glory”: In the Bible to give glory is often an idiom for giving recognition where recognition is due. This is why God won’t give glory to idols in His work of creation or with Israel.